Depends on the time. After the 1920s, most states granted women the right to vote too. Slaves could technically never vote. It wasn't until slavery was abolished and blacks were granted suffrage that it was possible. That was in 1865, but slaves would not be the correct answer. It's not taxpayers either, since not all people could vote, but all people payed taxes. The most reasonable answer is c. property owners. They always had the right to vote. Hope this helps :)
