A 25-year-old G1 woman at 20 weeks gestation desires termination of the pregnancy. Her prenatal course has been unremarkable except for a chromosomal analysis positive for Trisomy 18. She desires an autopsy of the fetus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Perform a dilation and curettage
B. Perform a dilation and evacuation
C. Await fetal demise then start induction of labor
D. Perform an induction with oxytocin
E. Perform an induction with intravaginal prostaglandins

Incorrect! Correct answer is E. Both medical and surgical abortions are options for this patient, depending on her personal preferences. However, if she desires an autopsy, she must undergo a medical abortion in order to have an intact fetus. Abortion is legal until viability is achieved (24 weeks gestation) unless a fetal anomaly inconsistent with extrauterine life is identified. A dilation and curettage is performed if the fetus is less than 16 weeks, while dilation and evacuation can be performed after 16 weeks by those trained in the procedure. Induction with oxytocin at this early gestational age has a high failure rate.