contestada

A woman who is 20 weeks pregnant is diagnosed with primary syphilis. She tells the nurse that she is very worried about the effect of the disease on the fetus. The most appropriate response by the nurse to the patient's concern is
a. 'Instillation of erythromycin into the eyes of the newborn will prevent any problems of transmission to the baby.'
b. 'A single intramuscular injection of penicillin at this point in your pregnancy will cure both you and the fetus of syphilis.'
c. 'If you have active genital lesions at the time you begin labor, a cesarean delivery will be performed to prevent transmission to the baby.'
d. 'Syphilis will not affect the baby in any way because the microorganism does not cross the placental barrier.'

Respuesta :

The most appropriate response by the nurse to the patient's concern would be:

b. 'A single intramuscular injection of penicillin at this point in your pregnancy will cure both you and the fetus of syphilis.'

This response is the most accurate and appropriate because treating syphilis with penicillin is the recommended treatment during pregnancy to prevent transmission of the disease to the fetus. It effectively treats the mother and protects the fetus from potential harm caused by the infection.

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