Respuesta :
True, if and only f(x) = x.
f(x) = x
y =x
inverse,
x = y
y = x
f^-1(x) = x
therefore,
f(x) = f^-1(x)
I'm not that sure but I hope it helps you :)
f(x) = x
y =x
inverse,
x = y
y = x
f^-1(x) = x
therefore,
f(x) = f^-1(x)
I'm not that sure but I hope it helps you :)