Considering the area of the hole, it is found that there is a 4.9% probability of hitting a ball into the circular hole.
The area of a circle of radius r is given by:
[tex]A = \pi r^2[/tex]
In this problem, the hole has a diameter of 1 ft, hence it is radius is of r = 1 ft/2 = 0.5 ft, and it's area is given by:
[tex]A = \pi \times (0.5)^2 = 0.7854 \text{ft}^2[/tex]
Hence the probability is given by:
p = 0.7854/16 = 0.049 = 4.9%
More can be learned about probabilities at https://brainly.com/question/14398287
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