Please answer this! I know the answer but I need “explain your answer” how did you get it?
Please!
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20 divided by 15/16 is
20 times 16/15 which is
(4*16)/3=
[tex]\frac{64}{3}[/tex]=
[tex]21\frac{1}{3}[/tex]
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
20 ÷ [tex]\frac{15}{16}[/tex]
Can be rewritten as:
[tex]\frac{20}{1}[/tex]÷ [tex]\frac{15}{16}[/tex]
Now we multiply, by keeping the first fraction, and flipping the second.
[tex]\frac{20}{1}[/tex] * [tex]\frac{16}{15}[/tex]
We can reduce 20 and 15 by 5, to make it easier to solve:
[tex]\frac{4}{1}[/tex] * [tex]\frac{16}{3}[/tex]
Not lets solve:
[tex]\frac{4}{1}[/tex] * [tex]\frac{16}{3}[/tex]
[tex]\frac{64}{3}[/tex] = [tex]21\frac{1}{3}[/tex] = [tex]21.{\overline {\rm {3}}}[/tex] (the 3 is repeating).
So, in short words, keep the 20, flips the fraction ([tex]\frac{15}{16}[/tex]) to ([tex]\frac{16}{15}[/tex]), and then reduce the 20 to 4, and the fraction ([tex]\frac{16}{15}[/tex]) to [tex]\frac{16}{3}[/tex] , and then multiply.
Hope that helps!