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Why are the perfect intervals (4, 5, 8) from major scales called perfect intervals? (WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST)

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Answer:It actually contains two perfect 4th intervals equivalent to five semitones. The chord formula would be 4 1 4 3. It's a 2nd inversion with an add, or specifically a maj3/2 (b11). When you add all the intervals up you get 17, subtract an octave and you get 5 (perfect 4th). The perfect 4th note in relation to the bass note is the root.

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