Answer:
Yes, we can conclude that the mean after treatment is lesser than the mean before treatment
Step-by-step explanation:
Given
[tex]\begin{array}{ccc}{Subject} & {Before} & {After} & {1} & {283} & {215} & {2} & {299} & {206} & {3} & {274} & {185} &{4} & {284} & {212} & {5} & {255} & {178} & {6} & {275} & {212} & {7} & {293} & {192} & {8} & {277} & {196}\ \end{array}[/tex]
Required
Can we conclude that the mean after treatment is lesser than the mean before
To do this, we calculate the mean of before and after treatment.
Mean is calculated as:
[tex]Mean = \frac{\sum x}{n}[/tex]
Where
[tex]n=8[/tex]
So, we have:
Before treatment
[tex]Before = \frac{283 + 299 + 274 + 284 + 255 + 275 + 293 + 277}{8}[/tex]
[tex]Before = \frac{2240}{8}[/tex]
[tex]Before = 280mg/dL[/tex]
After treatment
[tex]After = \frac{215+206+185+212+178+212+192+196}{8}[/tex]
[tex]After = \frac{1596}{8}[/tex]
[tex]After = 199.5 mg/dL[/tex]
By comparison:
[tex]199.5 mg/dL < 280mg/dL[/tex]
So:
Yes, we can conclude that the mean after is lesser than the mean before
