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The problem seems to contradict itself and that's why it puzzles me. Here's the full text:

Let there be an infinitely sided die where each face has an equal probability of appearing upon casting the die. Each side is marked {1,2,3,…}. What is the probability that upon casting this die a multiple of 5 appears?

How can this die form a uniformly distributed set?

Let p be the probability of rolling each number. Then ∑p=1, but there are infinitely many p's, so p=limn→∞1n, which leads to p=0, which, in\ turn, contradicts ∑p=1.