Answer:
false
Step-by-step explanation:
hello
if f and g are inverse then (fog)(n)=n
as (fog)(n) is different from n it is false
hope this helps
Option B, false is right as g(n) is not the inverse of f(n).
To find the inverse of a function the x in the function of f( x,y) is replaced by y and then the equation is solved for y, The function obtained is the inverse of the given function.
The function f(n) = -(n+1)³
it can be written in terms of y and n
y = - (n+1)³
The inverse of the function will be
n = -(y+1)³
[tex]\rm (y+1)^3 = -n\\\\\\y+1 = (-n)^{1/3}\\\\\\y = -1 -n^{1/3}[/tex]
this does not match the g(n).
Therefore, the option False is right as g(n) is not the inverse of f(n).
To know more about Inverse Function
https://brainly.com/question/2541698
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