Respuesta :
Answer:
44.9%
Step-by-step explanation:
The probability 31 or more will be male is the same as the probability that 29 or fewer will be female. A suitable calculator shows that to be ...
p(m≥31) ≈ 0.449 = 44.9%
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Numerous apps and spreadsheets can figure values from the binomial probability distribution.
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Answer:
44.9% (nearest tenth)
Step-by-step explanation:
We can solve this by using a binomial distribution since:
- Fixed number of trials (60)
- Two possible results: male and female
- All trials are independent
- Constant probability of success (0.5)
- X is the total number of males in the trials
X ~ B(n, p) ⇒ X ~ B(60, 0.5)
P(X ≥ 31) = 1 - P(X ≤ 30)
= 1 - 0.5512890796
= 0.4487109204...
= 44.9% (nearest tenth)