Respuesta :
Answer:
$1,255,617
Explanation:
Although the cash flows are occurring at equal intervals, we cannot use the annuity formula because each cash flow is a different amount. Annuity formula can only be used when the same amount of cash flows are occurring at equal intervals!
We need to compute the present value of the cash flows separately for each amount
The first cash flow is occurring at the end of the first year
We use the formula PV = FV/(1+i)^n
Where PV = Present Value, FV = Future value, i = Interest rate, which is the rate at which the cash flows are to be discounted, and n = the year in which the cash flow occurs
Plugging the values in the formula, we get the present value for the first year
PV = 250,000/(1+0.04)^1 = 250,000/1.04 = 240,384.62 = $240,385
The present values for the successive years are provided as under
PV = 20,000/(1+0.04)^2 = 20,000/1.0816 = 18,491.12= $18,491
PV = 180,000/(1+0.04)^3 =180,000/1.124864 = 160,019.34= $160,019
PV = 450,000/(1+0.04)^4 =450,000/1.169859 = 384,661.89= $384,662
PV = 550,000/(1+0.04)^5 =550,000/1.041.121665 = 452,059.91= $452,060
Adding up the present values for each of the years, we obtain the present value of the cash flow stream
240,385+18,491+160,019+384,662+452,060 = $1,255,617 approximately (since all the figures are rounded to the nearest whole dollar)