Answer:
40%
Explanation:
Here, We have two perfectly negatively correlated risky securities.
So, the minimum variance portfolio will be the portfolio with zero variance.
so, x(A)=σ(B)/(σA)+σ(B)) and x(B)=σ(A)/(σ(A)+σ(B))
therefore, x(B)=20/(20+30)
x(B)=20/50
x(B)=2/5 = 40%