Answer:
(a) 0.0244
(b) 0.0244
Step-by-step explanation:
a. The probability that a chip is defective given that is passes the test is determined by the probability that a defective chip passes the test divided by the probability that a chip passes the test.
20% of the chips are bad, 10% of those chips pass the test:
[tex]P(Bad\ \&\ Pass) =0.20*0.10=0.02[/tex]
The probability that any chip passes is:
[tex]P(Pass) =P(Bad\ \&\ Pass) +P(Good\ \&\ Pass) \\P(Pass) =0.20*0.10+0.80*1.0\\P(Pass) =0.82[/tex]
The probability that a chip is defective given that is passes the test is:
[tex]P(Bad|Pass)=\frac{P(Bad\ \&\ Pass) }{P(Pass)}\\P(Bad|Pass)=\frac{0.02}{0.82}=0.0244[/tex]
The probability is 0.0244.
b. This question is asking for the same thing in as the previous item, just with different words, "If the company sells all chips that pass the cheaper test (Given that a chip passes the test), what percentage of sold chips will be bad ( what is the probability that the chip was defective)."
Therefore, the probability is also 0.0244