Answer:
No, because P(A) x P(B) ≠ P(A∩B)
Step-by-step explanation:
In order for two events to be independent, the following relationship must be held true:
[tex]P(A)*P(B) = P(A\cap B)[/tex]
In this example, we are given that, P(A) = 0.80, P(B) = 0.60 and P(A∩B) =0.40.
[tex]P(A)*P(B) =0.80*0.60 = 0.48[/tex]
Therefore, P(A) x P(B) ≠ P(A∩B) and therefore the stock prices are not independent.