Respuesta :

Answer:

[tex]2\frac{1}{32}=\frac{2\cdot 32+1}{32}=\frac{65}{32}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Considering the expression

[tex]2\frac{1}{32}[/tex]

As

[tex]\mathrm{Convert\:mixed\:numbers\:to\:improper\:fraction:}\:a\frac{b}{c}=\frac{a\cdot \:c+b}{c}[/tex]

Improper fraction is a fraction which has numerator greater than denominator, such as 5/3.

So,

[tex]2\frac{1}{32}=\frac{2\cdot 32+1}{32}=\frac{65}{32}[/tex]

As [tex]2\frac{1}{32}[/tex] is converted into improper fraction  [tex]\frac{65}{32}[/tex] .

And  [tex]\frac{65}{32}[/tex] can not be further reduced.

Therefore,

[tex]2\frac{1}{32}=\frac{2\cdot 32+1}{32}=\frac{65}{32}[/tex]

Keywords: fraction, reduced form, improper fraction

Learn more about fractions from brainly.com/question/535608

#learnwithBrainly