Respuesta :
Answer:
a. VENDOR A
Year Cashflow DF@10% PV Cummulative PV
$ $ $
0 (380,000) 1 (380,000) (380,000)
1 125,000 0.9091 113,638 (266,362)
2 125,000 0.8264 103,300 (163,062)
3 125,000 0.7513 93,913 (69,149)
4 125,000 0.6830 85,375 16,226
Discounted payback period
= 3 years + $69,149/$85,375
= 3.81 years
Vendor B
Year Cashflow DF@10% PV Cummulative PV
$ $ $
0 (280,000) 1 (280,000) (280,000)
1 95,000 0.9091 86,365 (193,635)
2 95,000 0.8264 78,508 (115,127)
3 95,000 0.7513 71,374 (43,753)
4 95,000 0.6830 64,885 21,132
Discounted payback period
= 3 years + $43,753/$64,885
= 3.67 years
The ERP should be purchased from vendor 2 because it has a shorter payback period.
Explanation:
In this question, we need to discount the cashflows for each project at 10% for 4 years. Then, we will calculate the cummulative present value by deducting the initial outlay from the cash inflows for each year until the initial outlay is fully recovered.
(a) The discounted payback period of Vendor A is 3.8 years whereas for VENDOR B it is 3.7 years.
The solution for the above answer is solved below in the image.
(b)The ERP system should be purchased from VENDOR B because it has a shorter payback period.
Hence, VENDOR B is the correct answer for part b.
Learn more about discount payback, refer to:
https://brainly.com/question/25534287
#SPJ2
