Answer:
[tex]1.2*10^{-6}s[/tex]
Explanation:
The problem must be addressed through the concepts of electromotive force. By Faraday's law it is defined that
[tex]\epsilon = NA \frac{dB}{dt}[/tex]
Where
[tex]\epsilon =[/tex] Electromotive Force
N = Number of Loops
A = Area
B = Magnetic Field (chaging through the time)
From this equation and our values, we need to find the time, then we re-arrange the equation
[tex]dt = NA \frac{dB}{\epsilon}[/tex]
[tex]t = (16)(2.75*10^{-4})\frac{1.50*10^{-3}}{5.50}[/tex]
[tex]t = 1.2*10^{-6}s[/tex]
Therefore the time required for the magnetic field to decrease to zero from its maximum value is [tex]1.2*10^{-6}s[/tex]