Answer:
Yes, [tex]\frac{\pi }{2}[/tex] is a solution
Step-by-step explanation:
Recall that [tex]sin(\frac{\pi }{2})=1[/tex]. By replacing [tex]\frac{\pi }{2}[/tex] in the given trigonometric equation, we get 0 (zero) as a result, so this value is a solution:
[tex]2*(sin(\frac{\pi }{2} ))^2-sin(\frac{\pi }{2})-1= 2*(1)^2-1-1=2-2=0[/tex]
