Respuesta :

skyluke89

Answer:

No

Step-by-step explanation:

We have the following two functions:

[tex]f(x) = \frac{1}{x}[/tex]

[tex]g(x) = x-4[/tex]

The product of the two functions can be calculated as:

[tex](g \cdot g)(f) = (x-4) \cdot (\frac{1}{x}) = \frac{x-4}{x}[/tex]

We see that the domain of this new function is all real numbers, except from zero, which is excluded. Therefore, it is not possible to evaluate the function at x=0, so it is not possible to calculate (g ○ f)(0).

zainebamir540

Answer:

(g of)(0) = 1/0-4

Step-by-step explanation:

We have given two functions.

f(x) = 1/x and g(x) = x-4

We have to calculate (g of)(0).

The formula to calculate (g o f)(x) is :

(g of)(x)  = g(f(x))

Putting values in above formula, we have

(g of)(x)  = g(1/x)

(g of)(x)  = 1/x-4

(g of)(0) = 1/0-4

Since , we know that 1/0 does not exist.

We can't evaluate (g of)(0).

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