Consider this scenario: A neuron has a resting membrane potential of -70mV. At this point, the neuron is treated with a chemical that inhibits voltage-gated potassium channels such that these channels are unable close after being opened. Now imagine that the membrane potential of this neuron was brought to threshold while the voltage-gated potassium channels were inhibited (do not worry about the mechanism by which this neuron reached threshold, just assume that membrane potential reached a threshold while the potassium channels were inhibited). Would it be possible for this neuron to experience an action potential? Would this action potential be any different from an action potential observed in a neuron that was not treated with this inhibitor? Why or why not?