A 32-year-old man presents with progressive frontal headaches. His symptoms started 2 months ago and often wake him up from his sleep. His vital signs are stable, and neurologic examination reveals no focal deficits. MRI brain imaging reveals a mass lesion, and subsequent biopsy is consistent with a type IV astrocytoma. Which of the following is true regarding this patient's illness?
(A) It is considered the most common primary malignant brain tumor
(B) Prognosis is good since the tumor is slow growing
(C) The biopsy should demonstrate psammoma bodies
(D) This tumor does not cross the corpus callosum
(E) Interferon beta and glatiramer acetate are used in the management of this tumor