One week after open repair of a large right scrotal hernia, a 45-year-old male returns complaining of severe pain in his right testicle. On physical exam, the testicle appears to be slightly swollen and very tender to palpation. Doppler study demonstrates no flow within the right testicle with normal flow in the left. Which of the following is true about this condition?
(A) It is most commonly due to thrombosis of the pampiniform plexus
(B) Urgent exploration of the right testicle is recommended
(C) It is most likely due to transection of the testicular artery
(D) It most likely represents testicular torsion
(E) The testicle will likely remain permanently enlarged