Suppose that a, b, m, and n are integers (n, m positive) and suppose we know a = b (mod n) and nm Can we safely conclude that a = b (mod m)? (a) True by transitivity (b) False because I can find small integers for which it fails. True, because congruence mod n has more equivalence classes so the conclusion is just a weaker (c) version of the hypothesis. True, because congruence mod n has fewer equivalence classes so the conclusion is just a weaker (d) version of the hypothesis. Save & Grade Single attempt Save only 1 point available for this attempt